Thank-you all for your patience with me yesterday. As I intimated with the button-sewn-to-my-finger story a few days ago, my fine motor coordination is poor. Typing is challenging for me at the best of times and combined with fatigue, well, I hit the backspace key instead of the copy one…All I had left on my page was one poor little lower-case ‘c’ looking lonely and bereft…In any case, on to a short post:

Question: Why did Christ have to be be a Jew?

Christ had to be a man, and a Jewish man. Have you ever thought about that? Why did he have to be a Jew? Why couldn’t he have come from any other nation?

Of course, his Jewishness fulfilled God’s promise to Abraham and many Old Testament prophecies. But how? As I understand it, like this:

The Jews alone, of all the nations, had been given God’s law. And what is the law? God’s standard of righteousness. Therefore, if a man is to be perfectly righteous in God’s eyes, he first has to know God’s law, then keep it. He thereby wins or attains complete righteousness in God’s sight. There is no other type or definition of righteousness. It is based only on law-keeping.

So what about Christ? As a Jew, he knew God’s law. His perfect nature kept it in every detail. Therefore, he achieved complete human righteousness. The only human being in history ever to do so. It is this righteousness that he offered to God to perfect the blood sacrifice of himself, and now offers to us, to cover us. A law-keeping righteousness that covers our law-breaking hearts and lives…(Then soaks down into our soul. But that is a different topic – sanctification)

Righteousness has so much definition! Never a feeling or a fancy!

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